2018广东高考英语试卷及答案

　英语试卷及答案

　　阅读理解 (本大题共小题，每小题____分，共____分。)

 

　　第一节(共15小题:每小题2分,满分30分)

 

　　阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出合适选项。

 

　　A

 

　　Washington, D. C Bicycle Tours

 

　　Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.

 

　　Duration:3 hours

 

　　This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world famouscherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington，D.C. Your guide will provide ahistory lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom.Reserve your spot before availability-and the cherry blossoms-disappear!

 

　　Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour

 

　　Duration: 3 hours(4 miles)

 

　　Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments inWashington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall asyour guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includesbike, helmet, cookies and bottled water.

 

　　Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D. C

 

　　Duration: 3 hours

 

　　Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D. C.newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy waywith minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the mostinteresting stories about Presidents，Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortablebikes and a smooth tour route(路线)make cycling between the sites fun andrelaxing.

 

　　Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour

 

　　Duration:3 hours (7 miles)

 

　　Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart ofWashington, D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike thesites of Capitol Hill and the National Mall. Frequent stops are made for phototaking as your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike,helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests andsafety lights.

 

　　21. Which tour do you need to book in advance?

 

　　A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.

 

　　B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour.

 

　　C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D. C

 

　　D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour.

 

　　22. What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour?

 

　　A. Meet famous people.

 

　　B. Go to a national park.

 

　　C. Visit well-known museums.

 

　　D. Enjoy interesting stories.

 

　　23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide?

 

　　A. City maps.

 

　　B. Cameras.

 

　　C. Meals.

 

　　D. Safety lights.

 

　　B

 

　　Good Morning Britain's Susanna Reid is used to grilling guests on the sofaevery morning，but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role - showingfamilies how to prepare delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget。

 

　　In Save Money: Good Food, she visits a different home each week and withthe help of chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food waste, whilepreparing recipes for under ￡5 per family a day. And the Good Morning Britainpresenter says she's been able to put a lot of what she's learnt into practicein her own home, preparing meals for sons, Sam, 14, Finn, 13, and Jack, 11.

 

　　“We love Mexican churros so I buy them on my phone from my local Mexicantakeaway restaurant, "she explains. "I pay ￡5 for a portion (份)，but Matt makesthem for 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and oil. Everybodycan buy takeaway food, but sometimes we 're not aware how cheaply we can makethis food ourselves.”

 

　　The eight-part series(系列节目), Save money: Good Food, follows in thefootsteps of ITV's Save Money：Good Health, which gave viewers advice on how toget value from the vast range of health products on the market.

 

　　With food our biggest weekly household expense, Susanna and Matt spend timewith a different family each week. In tonight's Easter special they come to theaid of a family in need of some delicious inspiration on a budget. The teamtransforms the family's long weekend of celebration with less expensive butstill tasty recipes.

 

　　24.What do we know about Susanna Reid?

 

　　A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests.

 

　　B. She has started a new programme.

 

　　C. She dislikes working early in the morning.

 

　　D. She has had a tight budget for her family.

 

　　25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna

 

　　A. He buys cooking materials for her.

 

　　B. He prepares food for her kids.

 

　　C. He assists her in cooking matters.

 

　　D. He invites guest families for her.

 

　　26.What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4?

 

　　A. Summarize the previous paragraphs.

 

　　B. Provide some advice for the readers.

 

　　C. Add some background information.

 

　　D. : Introduce a new topic for discussion.

 

　　27. What can be a suitable title for the text?

 

　　A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart

 

　　B. Balancing Our Daily Diet

 

　　C. Making Yourself a Perfect Chef

 

　　D. Cooking Well for Less

 

　　C

 

　　Languages have been coming and going for thousands of years, but in recenttimes there has been less coming and a lot more going. When the world was stillpopulated by hunter-gatherers，small，tightly knit(联系)groups developed their ownpatterns of speech independent of each other. Some language experts believe that10,000 years ago, when the world had just five to ten million people, they spokeperhaps 12, 000 languages between them.

 

　　Soon afterwards, many of those people started settling down to becomefarmers, and their languages too became more settled and fewer in number. Inrecent centuries, trade, industrialisation, the development of the nation-stateand the spread of universal compulsory education, especially globalisation andbetter communications in the past few decades, all have caused many languages todisappear, and ____ languages such as English，Spanish and Chinese areincreasingly taking over.

 

　　At present, the world has about 6, 800 languages. The distribution of theselanguages is hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have relativelyfew languages, often spoken by many people, while hot wet zones have lots, oftenspoken by small numbers. Europe has only around 200 languages; the Americasabout 1, 000; Africa 2, 400; and Asia and the Pacific perhaps 3,200, of whichPapua New Guinea alone accounts for well over 800.The median number(中位数) ofspeakers is mere 6,000, which that half the world's languages are spoken byfewer people than that.

 

　　Already well over 400 of the total of 6, 800 languages are close toextinction (消亡), with only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busuuin Cameroon (eight remaining speakers), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apachein the United States (two or three) or Wadjigu in Australia (one, with aquestion-mark): none of these seems to have much chance of survival.

 

　　28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times?

 

　　A. They developed very fast

 

　　B. They were large in number

 

　　C. They had similar patterns

 

　　D. They were closely connected

 

　　29. Which of the following best explains "dominant" underlined in paragraph2?

 

　　A. Complex

 

　　B. .Advanced

 

　　C. Powerful.

 

　　D. Modern

 

　　30. How many languages are spoken by less than 6,000 people at present?

 

　　A. About 6,800

 

　　B. About 3,400

 

　　C. About 2,400

 

　　D. About 1,200

 

　　31. What is the main idea of the text?

 

　　A. New languages will be created.

 

　　B. People's lifestyles are reflected in languages.

 

　　C. Human development results in fewer languages.

 

　　D. Geography determines language evolution.

 

　　D

 

　　We may think we’re a culture that gets rid of our worn technology at thefirst sight of something shiny and new, but a new study shows that we keep usingour old devices (装置)well after they go out of style. That’s bad news for theenvironment- and our wallets - as these outdated devices consume much moreenergy than the newer ones that do the same things.

 

　　To figure out how much power these devices are using, Callie Babbitt andher colleagues at the Rochester Institute of Technology in New York tracked theenvironmental costs for each product throughout its life - from when itsminerals are mined to when we stop using the device. This method provided areadout for how home energy use has evolved since the early 1990s.Devices weregrouped by generation. Desktop computers， basic mobile phones, and box-set TVsdefined 1992. Digital cameras arrived on the scene in 1997.And WP3 players,smart phones, and LCD TVs entered homes in 2002，before tablets and e-readersshowed up in 2007.

 

　　As we accumulated more devices, however, we didn't throw out our old ones."The living-room television is replaced and gets planted in the kids’ room, andsuddenly one day ，you have a TV in every room of the house,” said oneresearcher. The average number of electronic devices rose from four perhousehold in 1992 to 13 in 2007. We’re not just keeping these old devices - Wecontinue to use them. According to the analysis of Babbitt's team, old desktopmonitors and box TVs with cathode ray tubes are the worst devices with theirenergy consumption and contribution to greenhouse gas emissions (排放) more thandoubling during the 1992 to 2007 window.

 

　　So what' s the solution(解决方案)? The team' s data only went up to2007， butthe researchers also explored what would happen if consumers replaced oldproducts with new electronics that serve more than one function, such as atablet for word processing and TV viewing. They found that more on-demandentertainment viewing on tablets instead of TVs and desktop computers could cutenergy consumption by 44%.

 

　　32. What does the author think of new devices?

 

　　A. They are environment-friendly.

 

　　B. They are no better than the old.

 

　　C. They cost more to use at home.

 

　　D. They go out of style quickly.

 

　　33. Why did Babbitt's team conduct the research?

 

　　A. To reduce the cost of minerals.

 

　　B. To test the life cycle of a product.

 

　　C. To update consumers on new technology.

 

　　D. To find out electricity consumption of the devices.

 

　　34. Which of the following uses the least energy?

 

　　A. The box-set TV.

 

　　B. The tablet.

 

　　C. The LCD TV.

 

　　D. The desktop computer.

 

　　35. What does the text suggest people do about old electronic devices?

 

　　A. Stop using them

 

　　B. Take them apart

 

　　C. Upgrade them.

 

　　D. Recycle them.

 

　　第二节 (共5小题：每小题2分,满分10分)

 

　　根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的合适选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

 

　　Color is fundamental in home design-something you’ll always have in everyroom. A grasp of how to manage color in your spaces in one of the first steps tocreating rooms you'll love to live in. Do you want a room that's full of life?Professional ? Or are you just looking for a place to relax after a longday?____, color is the key to making a room feel the way you want it to feel

 

　　Over the years, there have been a number of different techniques to helpdesigners approach this important point.____ ，they can get a little complex. Butgood news is that there’er really only three kinds of decisions you need to makeabout color in your home: the small ones, the medium ones, and the largeones.

 

　　____，They‘re the little spots of color like throw pillows, mirrors andbaskets that most of us use to add visual interest to our rooms. Less tiringthan painting your walls and less expensive than buying a colorful sofa, smallcolor choices bring with them the significant benefit of being easilychangeable.

 

　　Medium color choices are generally furniture pieces such as sofas, dinnertables or bookshelves.____They require a bigger commitment than smaller ones,and they have a more powerful effect on the feeling of a space.

 

　　The large color decisions in your rooms concern the walls, ceilings, andfloors. Whether you're looking at wallpaper or paint, the time, effort andrelative expense put into it are significant.____.

 

　　A. While all of them are useful

 

　　B. Whatever you're looking for

 

　　C. If you're experimenting with a color

 

　　D. Small color choices are the ones we’re most familiar with

 

　　E. it's not really a good idea to use too many small color pieces

 

　　F. So it pays to be sure, because you want to get it right the firsttime

 

　　G. Color choices in this range are a step up from the small ones in twomajor ways

 

　　第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分，满分30分)

 

　　阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的合适选项。

 

　　During my second year at the city college,I was told that the educationdepartment was offering a “free” course, called Thinking Chess, for threecredits. I ____ the idea of taking the class because, after all, who doesn’twant to ____ a few dollars? More than that, I’d always wanted to learn chess.And, even if I weren’t____ enough about free credits, news about our ____ wasappealing enough to me. He was an international grandmaster, which ____I wouldbe learning from one of the game’s ____ I could hardly wait to ____ him.

 

　　Maurice Ashley was kind and smart, a former graduate returning to teach,and this ____ was no game for him ; he meant business. In his introduction, hemade it ____that our credits would be hard-earned. In order to____the classamong other criteria, we had to write a paper on how we plan to ____ what wewould learn in class to our future professions and____to our lives. I managed toget an A in that ____ and leaned life lessons that have served me well beyondthe ____ .

 

　　Ten years after my chess class with Ashley, I' m still putting to use whathe ____ me：“the absolute most important ____ that you learn when you play chessis how to make good____. On every single move you have to ____ a situation,process what your opponent (对手) is doing and ____the best move from among allyour options.” These words still ring true today in my ____ as a journalist.

 

　　41.A. put forward

 

　　B. jumped at

 

　　C. tried out

 

　　D. turned down

 

　　42.A. waste

 

　　B. earn

 

　　C. save

 

　　D. pay

 

　　43.A. excited

 

　　B. worried

 

　　C. moved

 

　　D. tired

 

　　44.A. title

 

　　B. competitor

 

　　C. textbook

 

　　D. instructor

 

　　45.A. urged

 

　　B. demanded

 

　　C. held

 

　　D. meant

 

　　46.A. fastest

 

　　B. easiest

 

　　C. best

 

　　D. rarest

 

　　47.A. interview

 

　　B. meet

 

　　C. challenge

 

　　D. beat

 

　　48.A. chance

 

　　B. qualification

 

　　C. honor

 

　　D. job

 

　　49.A. real

 

　　B. perfect

 

　　C. clear

 

　　D. possible

 

　　50.A. attend

 

　　B. pass

 

　　C. skip

 

　　D. observe

 

　　51.A. add

 

　　B. expose

 

　　C. apply

 

　　D. compare

 

　　52.A. eventually

 

　　B. naturally

 

　　C. directly

 

　　D. normally

 

　　53.A. game

 

　　B. presentation

 

　　C. course

 

　　D. experiment

 

　　54.A. criterion

 

　　B. classroom

 

　　C. department

 

　　D. situation

 

　　55.A. taught

 

　　B. wrote

 

　　C. questioned

 

　　D. promised

 

　　56.A. fact

 

　　B. step

 

　　C. manner

 

　　D. skill

 

　　57.A. grades

 

　　B. decisions

 

　　C. impressions

 

　　D. comments

 

　　58.A. analyze

 

　　B. describe

 

　　C. rebuild

 

　　D. control

 

　　59.A. announce

 

　　B. signal

 

　　C. block

 

　　D. evaluate

 

　　60.A. role

 

　　B. desire

 

　　C. concern

 

　　D. behavior

 

　　61.第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

 

　　阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

 

　　According to a review of evidence in a medical journal, runners live threeyears __61__(long) than non-runners, You don't have to run fast or for long____(see) the benefit. You may drink, smoke, be overweight and still reduce yourrisk of ____(die) early by running.

 

　　While running regularly can’t make you live forever，the review says it____(be)more effective at lengthening life____ walking, cycling or swimming. Twoof the authors of the review also made a study published in 2014____showed amere five to 10 minute a day of running reduced the risk of heart disease andearly deaths from all ____(cause).

 

　　The best exercise is one that you enjoy and will do. But otherwise...it'sprobably running. To avoid knee pain, you can run on soft surfaces, do exercisesto ____(strength) your leg muscles (肌肉), avoid hills and get good running shoes.Running is cheap, easy and it's always____(energy). If you are time poor, youneed run for only half the time to get the same benefits as other sports,soperhaps we should all give____a try.

 

　　71.第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

 

　　假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中比较多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

 

　　增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。

 

　　删除:把多余的词用斜线()划掉。

 

　　修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

 

　　注意:1每处错误及其修改均一词;

 

　　2只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

 

　　During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father tovisit my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there,they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Lastwinter when I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens ofchicken. They also had a small pond which they raised fish. My grandpa said lastsummer they earned quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their lifehad improved. At the end of our trip，I told my father that I planned to returnfor every two years, but he agreed.

 

　　书面表达 (本大题共____分。)

 

　　72.第二节 书面表达(满分25分)

 

　　假定你是李华,你的新西兰朋友Terry将去中国朋友家做客,发邮件向你询问有关习俗。请你回复邮件,内容包括：

 

　　1到达时间

 

　　2合适的礼物

 

　　3餐桌礼仪

 

　　注意:

 

　　1词数100左右;

 

　　2可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。

 

　　答案

 

　　阅读理解

 

　　A D D B C C D B C B C A D B A

 

　　简答题

 

　　BADGF

 

　　B C A D D C B D C B C A C B A D B A D A

　　2018广东高考试卷及答案2018广东高考试卷及答案2018广东高考试卷及答案

 

　　书面表达

 

　　答案略